…but just what waveforms do the oscillators produce? Everywhere i look on the internet it just mentions the Taurus oscillators but never the waveform. Are they both the same?
Also would people like switchable waveforms on the new Taurus, or would that compromise the oscillator design?
The original Taurus I pedals produced ramp waveforms only.
The new Taurus promises a faithful reproduction of the Taurus voice and the Moog team is committed to as little compromise to the audio path as possible. The market told them that the sound of the original Taurus was upmost importance, and that is a primary design goal.
No one knows what new features will be added. Switchable waveforms would require CMOS switching which would impact the audio path and they want to avoid that. We do know that an external audio input to the filter will be added so you always have the option of using external VCOs controlled by the CV outputs of the new Taurus. Plenty of options out there for external VCOs in modular format.
Didn’t realize that the Taurus was ramp only.
MC, in your excellent retrosynth site on the Taurus you mention the linear v/hz control scheme works because of the short keyboard and no modulation.
So it seems the new T3 will have a exp to lin converter on the CV input. Do you think this would affect the sound when an external keyboard CV is used? Sort of the opposite effect of a Micromoog which sounds better through CV input than from its keyboard.
Also, I happen to use lots of subtle modulation on bass pedal patches. Do you think there is any way with new tech to add mod paths to the v/hz system without affecting the base sound?
Thanks.
It seems like this would be easy to accomplish through MIDI, but my knowlege of MIDI is pretty limited. 
Voltor, yeah, MIDI is how I have to do it now with the PK5, but I’m hoping for an all-in-one solution without external boxes.
I’m sure I’ll adjust to whatever the T3 ends up offering!
I figuerd the Taurus Pedals would have put out Sawtooth or Triangle, because their properties are harmonically condusive to angry or deep bass frequencies.
Can’t we get a ramp wave like that with the CP 251? Hmmmmm…thinking we can’t as an audio waveform but we can a voltage…
Eric
If the new T3 has a larger pedalboard, the v/hz would be harder to implement. V/oct would not only make more sense, it would put it in line with the rest of the world. The T3 will have a CV input for sequencers and LFOs so v/oct is more practical.
Whether it is v/hz or v/oct does not affect the audio path so no danger there.
There have been suggestions on modulation options to add to the T3. So long as it does not impact the audio path, it is possible we may see them. I also like subtle modulation and have suggested hard sync and audio FM to filter as they were two tools I often applied when building bass patches.
All this talk is just whetting my whistle.
So Voltor and I were discussing this Vpo vs h/V thing trying to figure out why it sounded so phat (for lack of a better word), and I was thinking afterwards that Hz is Hz no matter how you get to it. And please clear something up for me, if its hz per octave or Volts per octave…wouldn’t the volt per octave still essentially pump out the exact same number of hz to transpose an octave?
I mean I know that were essentially talking about linear vs Exponential responce that drives the Oscs, but Im thinking that they aren’t that different.
You see what Im getting at.
A v/oct oscillator is a v/hz oscillator with an exponential converter on the CV input. Other than that they are identical - same waveshapers, etc. If you extracted the exponential converter from a v/oct VCO to make it a v/hz VCO, the waveshapes will sound exactly the same.
That makes sense. Great info, MC! Thanks! 
This is doing some good shedding some light into the Myth of the Taurus.
EricK -
Just as an example, say it takes 1 Volt to sound A1, 55 Hz
In a Volt/Oct system
A1 (55 Hz) = 1V, A2 (110 Hz) = 2V, A3 (220 Hz) = 3V, A4 (440 Hz) = 4V, A5 (880 Hz) = 5V
In a Volt/Hz system
A1 (55 Hz) = 1V, A2 (110 Hz) = 2V, A3 (220 Hz) = 4V, A4 (440 Hz) = 8V, A5 (880 Hz) = 16V
So you can see that for 1 octave the systems are compatible, but diverge after that. Playing an A3 on a V/oct system would play D#2 on the V/Hz system, getting further out of tune the higher you go.
I think im going to have to look at that a few times before I TRULY understand that lol.
It’s quite simple. 
In a Volt/Hz system, the voltage exponentially increases per octave, as opposed to a Volt/oct system where 1 volt increases the whole octave. Volt per octave is linear, whereas Volt per Hz is exponential. Does that make sense?
“So you can see that for 1 octave the systems are compatible”
err. 2 notes in the octave might be compatable. where the 2 graphs intersect.
Don’t mean to make this confusing. Maybe you switched it while typing Voltor, but Volt/Octave is the exponential system and Volt/Hz is linear.
The Volt/Hz is linear because the voltage doubles as the frequency doubles. In the Volt/Octave system the voltage increases less and less as the frequency doubles.
You’re right Matt, only two notes are exactly the same frequency in first octave. You could get 12 semitones out of that first octave for each system, but the tunings would be only close and not exact.
I was trying to put in into perspective for EricK. The voltage increases exponentially in a V/Hz system. That’s what I was trying to convey. I realize that V/oct is considered exponential in the frequency/volt aspect, but I was trying to help EricK understand the voltage aspect.
yea.. the minor thord might be pushed a little lower.. while the 7th would be preeety high.